Re: [OPE] Question to Marxologists: Mode of production

From: Dave Zachariah (dave.zachariah@gmail.com)
Date: Fri Aug 29 2008 - 09:18:00 EDT


Jerry wrote:

So, I do't think
> it's the case that a given configuration of the forces of production are
> compatible with more than one mode of production. It's, of course,
> the case that as a new mode emerges it "inherits" the forces of production
> of the previous mode but - from the moment of its birth - the new relations
> of production alter the shape and characteristics of the forces of
> production.
>


I think this statement is really vacuous. Nothing of your answer to Paul
contradicts his example that a configuration of forces of production is
compatible with more than one mode of production. Industrial production in
capitalism and Soviet-socialism is another a recent example.

It is a different matter of the transition probabilities that each mode of
production has between configurations of forces of production. The
Soviet-type mode of production was incapable of going from industrial
production to large-scale information production and processing.

//Dave Z



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