Chai-on
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No. PCP cannot be a dominating mode of production in a social formation
because commodity exchange is to be ruled by a certain social process
which
determines the reduction coefficient of heterogeneous to homogeneous
labors.
A dominating mode of production determines the frame of reference for the
reduction of skilled, complex labors to unskilled, simple ones.
Paul
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It all depends what you mean by dominant. Your definition seems
too specific to commodity production. In discussing the transintion
from slavery to feudalism under the colonate would your definition
apply? I think not.
By dominant I meant simply that it employed the greater
part of the social labour.