[OPE-L:4716] Re: use-value of money

Michael William (mwilliam@compuserve.com)
Thu, 10 Apr 1997 13:55:24 -0700 (PDT)

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Alejandro:
> > > I agree: Money doesn't have a use-value and then cannot be a
> > commodity. This means that all interpretations in which Marx's
> > money is presented as a "commodity" are misleading. For example,
> > these system of equations in which one can use "cotton", "grain" or
> > "gold" as "money" are neglecting important aspects of Marx's monetary
> > theory.
> >
> > Money is a "general object" which main function is to represent and
> > to conserve, in a autonomous form, abstract social labor-time.
> >
>
Paul C.:
> what then was the sheckle? it was a measure of barley, but also, during
> at least the second babylonian empire it served as the universal
equivalent
> and
> unit of account.
>
Alejandro can, of course, speak for himself. However, that one universal
equivalent unit of account, the sheckle, was a measure Barley, a useful
object, in the second babylonian empire says absolutely nothing about
whether Capitalist Money must necessarily (for systemic reproduction) be
manifest in a Commodity.

Even if there were a systematic exchange ratio between barley and the
sheckle in the second babylonian empire, I guess it is no longer the same
as in modern Israel?

Michael
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Dr Michael Williams
"Books are Weapons"

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