[OPE-L:6433] Re: [OPE] What is prior? Response to Paul C

Paul Cockshott (wpc@faraday.org)
Wed, 08 Apr 1998 09:24:46 +0100

Alan Freeman wrote:
I regard both the 100 hours and the $50 as being 'determined prior' to

> sale. Both arise entirely from the immediate conditions of the labour
> process which gave rise to them and cannot be modified through subsequent
> exchange.
>
> I think that it you probably wouldn't find sense in the idea that the
> product has a monetary measure prior to its sale. In that case, my
> principle could only be formulated in terms of hours, and in that form, I
> suspect that we agree on it.
>

You are right there. I dont think that you can assign a monetary valuationto the
total social product in abstraction from current monetary conditions.