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I don't want to respond to Gil's careful argument with slapdash
polemic, so let me add this. If anyone believed that Marx's Chs
1 - 5 of Vol. I established that the /only logically possible/
basis of M-C-M' was the exploitation of propertyless
wage-labourers on the basis of the value of labour-power being
smaller than the value these labourers produce during the
working day, then I accept that Gil's (and Roemer's) arguments
ought to disabuse them of that idea. Only I'm willing to cut
Marx a little slack, on the basis that he was presupposing a
fair amount (along the lines of uncontroversial empirical fact)
about the actual mode of production he was analysing.
Allin.
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