Re Michael P's [OPE-L:4096]:
> Depreciation can exist without affecting use value.
> Tech. change can make a machine obsolute without affecting
> use value.
Can you give us an example of this? It seems to me that the process
of technical change whereby machinery is rendered obsolete
necessarily leads to a dimunition in use-value and then (i.e. hence)
exchange-value and value. Indeed, this loss in value due to the loss
in use-value is central to the meaning of depreciation whether the
loss in use-value is caused by physical wear and tear or social
("moral") factors such as technical change in the development of
means of production.
In solidarity, Jerry
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