Allin wrote in [OPE-L:4281]: > <snip, JL>; on the other hand, I don't > believe that _any_ real capitalist economies over any historical > period have closely approximated an equalized rate of profit. This is a very strong empirical/historical claim, imo. Do you have the data "for _any_ (and all?, JL) real capitalist economies over any (and all "modern"?, JL) historical period"(s)? If not, how do you support the above claim? Or is your point simply that the historical evidence for an equalized rate of profit as a "stylized fact" is very weak? In solidarity, Jerry
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