On Fri, 27 Oct 2000, Andrew_Kliman wrote: > Paul Z wrote in OPE-L 4313, > > "Suppose I turn it around and ask, IF compositions are equal, do we have > price-value equivalence (I'm hesitant to use your prices = values, > because we have values measured in labor time, but I don't know what you > have prices measured in)? This is a sufficiency question." > > No, if the value compositions of capital are equal, prices will equal > values only if, in addition, rates of profit are also equal across > branches and wages rates are also equal across branches. I was presuming that profit rates and wages rates are equal. Now back to my question of sufficiency. Paul Z.
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