> >The obvious problem is that if "cost-price plus" is a proper statement >of Marx's view then "double divergence" is nonsense: there is one and >only one source of divergence between price of production and value, >namely the discrepancy between surplus value and (equalized) profit. Allin, I think that it should be noted that while this is obvious, I was the first to point it out. In fact, I can't find in the exegeses of Marx I have a single reference to Marx's idea (articulated both in TSVIII and Capital III) that there are two reasons why value and price of production diverge. I look forward to working through Alejandro's post on this matter (and immediately note that the reference in TSVIII to double divergence is not part of a section on commodities of average composition at all ). And I look forward to working through Andrew K's criticism of Fred's macro method as regards changes in the technical conditions in a dept III (though of course there is no dept III in Andrew's example). And I owe Paul Z a reply on the schemes as well. As Jerry has reminded me, there is no reason to rush off a reply--especially since you are all probably getting drunk at a conference somewhere below sea level. Yours, Rakesh
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