[OPE-L:5018] Praise for Andrew's post

From: Steve Keen (s.keen@uws.edu.au)
Date: Wed Feb 21 2001 - 16:50:28 EST


I sent Andrew an off-list post praising his for his algebraic critique of
Fred's and Rakesh's positions; he suggested:

"Thanks, but why don't you tell the whole list?  <snip>

Andrew"

I agreed. It was a great post (ditto his most recent comments on Fred's
numerical example).

Of course, this doesn't mean that I've joined TSS!--far from it -:). But
I'm delighted to acknowledge good logic when I see it.

Cheers,
Steve

-----Original Message-----
From: Steve Keen [mailto:s.keen@uws.edu.au]
Sent: Tuesday, February 20, 2001 3:13 PM
To: Andrew_Kliman@msn.com
Subject: Re: [OPE-L:4998] Luxury Production: Karl vs. Fred and
Rakesh
In OPE-L 4941, Rakesh seemed to agree that Fred's "prices of
production and profit rate [are] physicalist, i.e., ...
functionally determined by physical quantities (input-output and
real wage coefficients) ... [in the sense that] to each set of
input-output and real wage coefficients, there corresponds a
unique set of production prices and a unique uniform profit rate."

Rakesh seemed also to agree that this definition of functional
determination "says NOTHING about physical quantities being
'fundamental givens,' initial data, or anything of the sort."


I thought to myself, this is too good to be true.


It was.


Rakesh still hasn't gotten the point.  In OPE-L 4983, he writes
"The very point of Fred's elaboration of his macro method is to
counterpose it sharply to simultaneous equations! For example, the
methods yield different magnitudes in the average rate of profit
once there are changes in the technical conditions in a luxury
sector."

The last sentence is COMPLETELY UNTRUE.  The reason it is untrue
is that Fred is a simultaneist.  His prices of production and
profit rate are therefore physicalist -- functionally determined
by physical quantities (input-output and real wage coefficients),
in the sense that to each set of input-output and real wage
coefficients, there corresponds a unique set of production prices
and a unique uniform profit rate.  Fred's METHOD, turning on
"fundamental givens," initial data, etc. has NOTHING to do with
it.


For the umpteenth time, I will now PROVE what I have just said --
something neither Fred nor Rakesh seem willing to do with their
assertions.



I.  Assume a two-sector economy.  Sector f produces food by means
of food and living labor; sector y produces yachts, a luxury good,
by means of food and living labor.  Workers' consumption consists
of food.  There is no fixed capital (for simplicity).



II.  Define:

Cj = constant capital used up in producing good j (food, yachts)
Vj = variable capital
Sj = surplus-value
Mj = aggregate price of production of sector j

Rm = (Sf + Sy)/(Cf + Vf + Cy + Vy) = Fred Moseley's general profit
rate.

Pj = unit (output) price of production of good j
Aj = amount of food required as input by sector j to produce one
unit of output
b = food wage (equalized) per unit of living labor
Lj = living labor required as input by sector j to produce one
unit of output
Xj = gross output of sector j

Unit *input* prices also equal Pj, the *output* prices, in
accordance with Fred's interpretation.



III.   Since total price = total value,

Mf + My = (Cf + Vf + Sf) + (Cy + Vy + Sy) = (Cf + Vf + Cy + Vy)(1
+ Rm).

Thus, another way of expressing Rm is

(1)  Rm = (Mf + My)/(Cf + Cy + Vf + Vy) - 1



IV.  The magnitude of the physicalist (Sraffian, etc.) general
rate of profit depends only on Af, b, and Lf.  Specifically,

(2)  Rp = 1/(Af + b*Lf) - 1 = physicalist general rate of profit.

Note that technical change in luxury production has no effect on
its magnitude.  Fred denies that the same is true of Rm.  Rakesh
reiterates the denial.  They are wrong.  I will PROVE they are
wrong by proving that Rm = Rp.



V.  The Cj, Vj, and Sj and thus Rm are "determined in the prior
analysis of capital-in general in Volume I."  They are "logically
prior" to the formation of production prices and the equalization
of the rate of profit.  To emphasize this point, I will be putting
the ALREADY-DETERMINED magnitudes on the RIGHT, and the
TO-BE-DETERMINED magnitudes on the LEFT.  For instance:

(3) Pf*Aj*Xj = Cj

This means that, WHATEVER may be the magnitudes of Pf, Aj, and Xj,
their product MUST equal the *already-determined* amount of
constant capital advanced, Cj.

Similarly:

(4) Pf*b*Lj*Xj = Vj , and

(5) Pj*Xj = Mj .



VI.  Now, Fred's rate of profit is equalized, so

My/(Cy +Vy) - 1 = Mf/(Cf +Vf) - 1

and thus

My = Mf*(Cy + Vy)/(Cf + Vf)

Hence, using (1),

Rm = [Mf + Mf*(Cy + Vy)/(Cf + Vf)]/[Cf + Cy + Vf + Vy] - 1

= [Mf*(Cf + Vf + Cy + Vy)]/[(Cf + Vf)(Cf + Cy + Vf + Vy)] - 1

= Mf/(Cf + Vf) - 1.

So, Rm = Mf/(Cf + Vf) - 1.



VII.  Finally, substituting in the left-hand sides of (3), (4),
and (5) in this last expression for Rm:

Rm = Pf*Xf/(Pf*Af*Xf + Pf*b*Lf*Xf) - 1

= 1/(Af + b*Lf) - 1

= Rp.

Hence, Rm = Rp.

Since Rm is equal to Rp, and Rp is functionally dependent only on
Af, b, and Lf, the same is true of Rm.  Technical change in yacht
production has no effect on its magnitude.  Q.E.D.



VIII.  The above result is contrary to what Fred claims and Rakesh
reiterates.  More importantly, it is contrary to Marx's theory.
Fred's macro-monetary interpretation fails.  The reason for the
failure is his simultaneism, i.e., the fact that the input price
of food in (3) and (4) is constrained to equal the output price of
food in (5).

Dr. Steve Keen
Senior Lecturer
Economics & Finance
Campbelltown, Building 11 Room 30,
School of Economics and Finance
UNIVERSITY WESTERN SYDNEY
LOCKED BAG 1797
PENRITH SOUTH DC NSW 1797
Australia
s.keen@uws.edu.au 61 2 4620-3016 Fax 61 2 4626-6683
Home 02 9558-8018 Mobile 0409 716 088
Home Page: http://bus.macarthur.uws.edu.au/steve-keen/



This archive was generated by hypermail 2b30 : Thu Mar 01 2001 - 14:01:39 EST