[OPE-L:5600] Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: William of Ockam's Razor and Political Economy

From: howard engelskirchen (lhengels@igc.org)
Date: Wed May 16 2001 - 23:03:26 EDT


Rakesh,

Re your 5584

>I am 
>wondering whether the point to be made here is that if in the 
>equivalent form, private labor assumes the form of social labor; it 
>is also true that in the relative form social labor assumes the form 
>of private labor??
>

I have puzzled over this.  First off, plainly we can't say that social
labor assumes the "form of appearance" of private labor because social
labor doesn't have any natural properties to appear.  So then the question
is whether social labor can be considered a form of private labor.  But
this doesn't make any sense either.  Private labor can become a form of
social labor because it is exchanged, but social labor remains social labor
even in the relative form.  So I think the most we can say is that social
labor in the relative form is a property of private labor.

Comradely,

Howard



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