From: gerald_a_levy (gerald_a_levy@MSN.COM)
Date: Wed Dec 10 2003 - 18:44:39 EST
Re Paul C's post on Farjoun and Machover: > More generally, if class struggle is able to establish > a uniform ratio between wages and profits for all > industries, the only possible such uniform ratio is > 50/50. Why would we anticipate a uniform ratio of wages to profits for all industries? What would be the preconditions for such a condition? Perhaps One Big Union that fought successfully against wage disparities in all industries? Or would the OBU have had to successfully fight to peg wages to profits such that as profits increased wages would be adjusted? Of course, this implies that when profits decreased then wages would decrease as well by the same proportion, willy nilly. None of this makes any sense to me, nor do I think it makes much sense as an empirical claim since there are _huge_ wage disparities in most capitalist economies in different industries, sectors, and regions. It also implies a rather odd totalizing conception of class struggle which does not well represent the actual processes of class struggle where there is the _uneven development of class struggle_. In solidarity, Jerry
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.5 : Sat Dec 13 2003 - 00:00:01 EST