Re: (OPE-L) accumulation and de-accumulation of capital?

From: Paul Cockshott (wpc@DCS.GLA.AC.UK)
Date: Fri Apr 23 2004 - 10:49:05 EDT


Are you talking in stock or flow terms.

Stock terms are relevant when one is looking at the
rate of profit as a rate of growth in value per annum.
Flow terms are relevant when one is looking at the rate
of profit in terms of profit as a percent of turnover.
Or, if you are addressing Paul Zs question of the expansion
of the mode of prodution into other modes of production
since what is really happening here is that people are
being transfered.

In flow terms, the dimension of variable capital is people,
specifically the number of people needed to reproduce the
work force in the capitalist sector.

Beyond this I think there are mistakes in your outlook:
You write:
--------------------------
Capital must take the money-form for there to be an accumulation
of capital.  I.e. following the actualization of surplus value, capitalists
must reinvest more money by buying more capital (in the form of c
and v). 
-------------------------

This is implicitly a stock analysis you are making but
even in this form it wildly wrong.

Your account only makes sense with gold money, with modern money
an accumulation of money is a purely paper operation and
does not represent an accumulation of value.
To evaluate the accumulation of capital stock what one
has to do is estimate the labour content of the means
of production, unsold stocks, and work in progress. If
one just added up money you would get a measure that 
had little bearing on reality since in a modern economy
money is a zero sum game, debit and credit balances equate.


--------------------------------
You wrote


 Since both c and v, required to purchase means of production
and labour-power, take the money-form, it necessarily follows -- I
believe -- that _if_ the wages of  wage-workers whose salaries
are paid out of v rises then the accumulation of capital may have
increased (_if_ one defines accumulation of capital as Paul Z has
done) even though the quantity of productive wage-workers may have
remained stable or diminished (which itself is a possibility which is not
allowed for in his perspective).
---------------
There is a kernel of truth in this, the number of workers
required to reproduce the real wage may rise even if the
total working population does not.

The problem comes from trying to stretch a concept beyond
its proper area of definition. Accumulation of capital is a
change in stocks. Extension of the mode of production is
a flow issue, relating to the number of people employed.
Accumulation of capital without and extension of the mode
of production tends to result in a falling rate of profit.

-------------
Gerry
Yet, he has also claimed that when there is an
accumulation of capital the quantity of productive wage-workers must
increase.  However,  suppose that the increase in v above is solely
attributable to a 5% increase in wages for these workers.  In that
circumstance an increase in the accumulation of capital will not necessarily
be associated with an increase in the size of the employed productive
wage-labour force.
 ---------------------

The circumstances you describe certain do happen at times,
they occured in the UK int he 60s and arguably in other
european countries in the 80s and 90s.

I doubt that they occur on a world scale today, but I may
be wrong, one would need a lot of empirical data to check.


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