From: Gerald_A_Levy@MSN.COM
Date: Wed Apr 06 2005 - 09:41:28 EDT
Last year we had a discussion on the subject of "s/v & c/v: macroeconomic categories only?". In that thread Simon and Cyrus claimed that one can not calculate the rate of surplus value for a firm or an industry. Rather, they argued, it is a rate which expresses an aggregate or macro relationship. Yet the members who took this position thought that s/v could be empirically calculated for an individual national economy. This leads me to the question: is it legitimate -- from your perspectives -- to calculate the rate of surplus value in Puerto Rico? Recall that Edward N. Wolff attempted such an empirical estimation in the 1970s. Yet, isn't Puerto Rico a *colony* of the USA? How is it possible to calculate the rate of surplus value of a colony independently of a calculation of the rate of surplus value in the imperial nation? If we attempt such a calculation anyway, don't we obscure the transfer of surplus value in the form of surplus profits from the colony? In solidarity, Jerry
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