From: Rakesh Bhandari (bhandari@BERKELEY.EDU)
Date: Wed Apr 06 2005 - 11:56:45 EDT
At 9:41 AM -0400 4/6/05, Gerald_A_Levy@MSN.COM wrote: > >Yet, isn't Puerto Rico a *colony* of the USA? How is it possible to >calculate the rate of surplus value of a colony independently of >a calculation of the rate of surplus value in the imperial nation? But is it meaningful to speak of the rate of surplus value within a nation state? rb
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