From: Dave Zachariah (davez@kth.se)
Date: Mon Jul 28 2008 - 12:30:30 EDT
on 2008-07-28 16:11 Gerald Levy wrote: >> What precisely is your VLP then? Labour-power as a commodity is one >> historically specific concept, i.e. it does not apply in say feudalism. >> However, from your previous exchanges your VLP seems to boils down to "the >> social labour necessary to reproduce the capacity to work", which is >> nothing but a subset of the labour above. What is the historical specific >> part here? >> > > The historically specific part refers to capitalism and the relation > between > capital and wage-labor. > You are avoiding the main question: What precisely is your VLP? 1. How is it defined? 2. How can you make it operational? 3. How could one measure this quantity? > Science also cautions against over-reaching and over-generalization. > One has to demonstrate that this is the case. >> A comparative historical understanding requires general concepts such as >> "class", "surplus labour", "relations of production" etc. >> > > Yes, that's true. Certain concepts have trans-historical applicability > while others are specific to a specific mode of production. > > Obviously I agree, as stated in my previous post. Now the question arises: Does the social labour time necessary to reproduce use-values set general constraints on any society not merely capitalist societies? //Dave Z _______________________________________________ ope mailing list ope@lists.csuchico.edu https://lists.csuchico.edu/mailman/listinfo/ope
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