[OPE-L:4045] Re: RE: Re: Re: Re: m in Marx's theory

From: Andrew_Kliman (Andrew_Kliman@email.msn.com)
Date: Wed Oct 11 2000 - 08:35:51 EDT 

In OPE-L 4044, Julian asked:

"Is there any reason to think that the distribution of industry OCC's (or
of firm ones, for that matter) would be Gaussian?"

My first thought was to agree that the answer is no.  Then I remembereed
to ask myself what an industry is.  Realizing that industries can be
aggregated any damned way one wants, it thus occurred to me that the
distribution of OCCs can probably be anything one wants as well.


Andrew Kliman

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